I expect my audience to be able to Google. If anything I cite is wrong, please provide a link to a better source.

I also assume everyone knows that poverty is racially disproportionate. However, the redlining appears to have been racially proportionate, since there were nine times as many white owners who were redlined.

You ducked the question that followed what you quoted. If white people have white privilege after Jim Crow, why haven't the proportions on poverty shifted in favor of white people?